what is the difference between "has become" and "has became" ?

Question

what is the difference between "has become" and "has became" ?

Could you give me some examples ?

PS: I'm a English beginner
PS2: I will report spamers

Answer 1

In standard academic English, "has became" does not exist.



Present perfect is formed from the auxiliary verb has/have plus the past participle.

For the verb 'become,' the past participle is 'become'

become - became - become



In some regional varieties of English, people use the simple past in place of the past participle, so they may say things like "They've went there." instead of "They've gone there." That may be why you have heard "have became"



However, for academic and professional purposes, you should use [have become]

Answer 2

"has become"



This is proper grammar. It uses the past participle "become" with the present tense of "has" to form the present perfect tense. This is how you should say it.



Example: John has become too difficult to work with. (proper grammar)



"has became"



This is improper grammar. It improperly uses the preterit tense "became" with the present tense "has" to form the present perfect tense. Many native speakers improperly use the preterit tense of a verb instead of its past participle to form the present perfect tense. It reflects a lack of education. This is NOT how you should say it.



Example: John has became too difficult to work with. (improper grammar)

Answer 3

In fact both verbs are correct. But become seems to be decorative. Become, Became and became are forms of verb Become.

Answer 4

Became-paste tense

Become-present tense

Answer 5

"Has become" is grammatically correct. e.g. "The room has become unbearably hot". "Has became" is incorrect. You can't say "She has became agitated." "She became agitated" is correct.

Answer 6

Ones in past and the other is present tense

Answer 7

'Has become' is correct English, 'has became' is not.